ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery and has an indwelling urinary catheter that is draining dark yellow urine at 25 ml/hr. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Clamp the catheter.
- B. Administer a fluid bolus.
- C. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- D. Initiate continuous bladder irrigation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should anticipate initiating continuous bladder irrigation. Dark yellow urine output at a rate of 25 ml/hr following abdominal surgery may indicate urinary stasis or obstruction, which could lead to complications like urinary retention. Continuous bladder irrigation helps prevent catheter obstruction and manage urinary retention by ensuring patency and promoting urine flow. Clamping the catheter (Choice A) could lead to urinary stasis and should be avoided. Administering a fluid bolus (Choice B) is not indicated solely based on the urine color and output described. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice C) may be necessary for assessing infection but does not directly address the issue of urinary stasis or obstruction.
2. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Eat 3 large meals each day.
- D. Report any muscle pain to your provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client prescribed metformin is to avoid drinking alcohol. Alcohol consumption while on metformin increases the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious condition. Taking metformin at bedtime (choice A) is not a standard instruction. Eating 3 large meals each day (choice C) is not specific to metformin use and may not be suitable for all individuals. Reporting muscle pain (choice D) is important but not directly related to metformin use.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum albumin.
- B. Ammonia.
- C. Bilirubin.
- D. Prothrombin time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. In clients with cirrhosis, impaired liver function can lead to elevated levels of ammonia in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by altered mental status. Serum albumin (Choice A) is typically decreased in cirrhosis due to the liver's reduced synthetic function. Bilirubin (Choice C) levels can be elevated in liver disease but may not always be the most specific marker for cirrhosis. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is prolonged in cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors.
4. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine, and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I should take this medication with food to prevent nausea.''
- B. ''I should take this medication in the evening before bedtime.''
- C. ''I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.''
- D. ''I should stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Levothyroxine is a lifelong medication for clients with hypothyroidism, and it should be taken as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can have adverse effects on thyroid function.
5. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
- A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated left shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old client with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.
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