a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effecti
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

3. A client is 24 hr postoperative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which of the following findings is a priority to report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is indicative of decreased kidney function, potentially due to inadequate perfusion or other complications post-aneurysm resection. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent further complications such as acute kidney injury. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sounds are also important postoperative assessments but are not as critical as impaired kidney function in this scenario.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to a client. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering a rectal suppository is to place the client in a Sims' position. This position helps facilitate the proper administration of the suppository by allowing better access to the rectum. Encouraging the client to hold their breath as long as possible (Choice A) is unnecessary and not related to the administration of a rectal suppository. Inserting the suppository just past the anal sphincter (Choice B) is incorrect as it may not reach the rectum where it needs to be placed. Lubricating the suppository and inserting it 1.5 cm into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as the suppository needs to be inserted deeper into the rectum for proper absorption.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.

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