ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the transfusion immediately.
- B. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
- C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- D. Increase the transfusion rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever, the priority action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion immediately. A fever during a blood transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Administering an antihistamine (choice B) or a diuretic (choice C) without assessing and addressing the potential transfusion reaction can be harmful. Increasing the transfusion rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate any adverse reactions the client is experiencing.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- B. I will increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid dizziness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.
4. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
5. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?
- A. Almonds
- B. Spinach
- C. Yogurt
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.
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