ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Does the doctor know you are eating that?
- B. Why are you eating seaweed soup?
- C. Of course, I will heat that up for you.
- D. The hospital food is more nutritious.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Respecting cultural preferences and providing client-centered care promotes trust.
2. A nurse is caring for a client following the application of a cast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Place an ice pack over the cast
- B. Palpate the pulse distal to the cast
- C. Teach the client to keep the cast clean and dry
- D. Position the casted extremity on a pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Palpating the pulse distal to the cast is the priority as it assesses for circulation. Ensuring adequate blood flow is essential to prevent complications such as compartment syndrome. Placing an ice pack over the cast could cause constriction of blood vessels, further compromising circulation. Teaching the client about cast care and positioning the casted extremity on a pillow are important but do not take precedence over assessing circulation.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days
- D. Heart rate of 76/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 2 days can indicate fluid retention, which is a sign of worsening heart failure and should be reported. This rapid weight gain suggests a fluid overload, putting the client at risk for complications. A heart rate of 90/min is slightly elevated but not as concerning as a sudden significant weight gain. The serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not directly indicate worsening heart failure. A heart rate of 76/min is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns related to heart failure.
4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT levels
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor INR levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
- B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
- C. 1+ protein in the urine
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.
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