Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?

• A. Digoxin 0.8 ng/mL
• B. Sodium 145 mEq/L
• C. BUN 20 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
• C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Proteinuria of 1+.
• B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
• D. Nonpitting ankle edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.

5. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse expect to include?

• A. Encourage group activities to promote socialization.
• B. Encourage the client to take frequent naps throughout the day.
• C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
• D. Promote physical activity during mealtimes to stimulate appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing high-calorie snacks is essential when caring for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder because they often have increased energy expenditure and may not eat adequately due to their heightened activity levels. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may overwhelm the client further during this phase. Encouraging frequent naps (Choice B) contradicts the need to manage increased energy levels. Promoting physical activity during mealtimes (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can distract the client from eating, which is crucial in meeting their nutritional needs.

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