Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• B. Assist the client to the left Sims' position
• C. Insert the enema tubing 2.5 cm (1 in) into the rectum
• D. Lubricate the tip of the enema tubing with petroleum jelly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to the left Sims' position when administering an enema. This position helps facilitate the flow of the enema solution into the rectum. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema. Inserting the enema tubing 2.5 cm (1 in) into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as it should be inserted 7.5-10 cm (3-4 in) for an adult. Lubricating the tip of the enema tubing with petroleum jelly (Choice D) is a correct step to ease insertion but is not the most critical action among the choices provided.

2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with meals to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Take this medication at the same time every day.
• C. Notify your provider if you experience chest pain or palpitations.
• D. Take this medication with antacids to reduce indigestion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication at the same time every day.' It is crucial to take levothyroxine at the same time each day to maintain consistent thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning. Choice C is important but not specific to the administration of levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

3. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Lean cuts of pork.
• B. Low-fat yogurt.
• C. White bread.
• D. Oatmeal.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.

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