ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraints within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a verbal prescription for restraints due to acute mania is to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. Documenting at regular intervals is essential to monitor the client's well-being, assess the effects of the restraints, and ensure the client's safety. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as documenting the overall condition. Obtaining a prescription for restraints within 4 hours (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed when a verbal prescription is already obtained.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take warfarin every other day.
- B. I will eat more leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
- C. I will use a soft toothbrush while taking warfarin.
- D. I will have my INR checked regularly while taking warfarin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating more leafy green vegetables can increase vitamin K intake, which may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin. This can lead to fluctuations in the International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels, affecting the medication's efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Taking warfarin every other day, using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding, and having regular INR checks are all appropriate and important actions when taking warfarin.
4. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?
- A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
- B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
- C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
- D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Clamp the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed.
- B. Empty the drainage system every 8 hours.
- C. Keep the collection device below the client's chest.
- D. Strip the chest tube every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the collection device below the client's chest. This positioning ensures proper drainage of fluid from the chest, preventing backflow of fluids. Clamping the chest tube when assisting the client out of bed is incorrect as it can lead to fluid accumulation and potential complications. Emptying the drainage system every 8 hours is necessary but not the priority over maintaining proper positioning. Stripping the chest tube every 4 hours is an outdated practice and can cause damage to the tissue and should be avoided.
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