a nurse is planning care for a group of clients which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first
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ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a common concern in patients receiving loop diuretics?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia (Choice C). Loop diuretics can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a common concern with loop diuretic therapy and necessitates regular monitoring. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with loop diuretics but with conditions like renal failure. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is more common with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical concern with loop diuretic use.

3. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lanugo covering the skin. Lanugo, a fine downy hair, is a common finding in newborns delivered prematurely at 32 weeks gestation. Choice A (Dry, cracked skin) is incorrect as premature infants often have translucent and delicate skin. Choice C (Vernix caseosa covering the skin) is incorrect as vernix, a waxy substance, is more commonly seen in full-term newborns. Choice D (Creases covering the soles of the feet) is incorrect as creases on the soles of the feet are a normal finding in term newborns, not specifically related to prematurity.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect an increase in which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. This occurs due to the role of cortisol in promoting gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cushing's disease is not typically associated with alterations in serum potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.

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How should fluid balance be monitored in a patient receiving diuretics?
A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
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