Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

2. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

• A. Administer IV glucose
• B. Administer oral glucose
• C. Check blood sugar in 15 minutes
• D. Provide a high-calorie snack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia is to administer oral glucose. Oral glucose is usually sufficient for treating mild hypoglycemia and can be administered quickly and easily. Administering IV glucose (Choice A) is reserved for severe cases where the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious. Checking blood sugar in 15 minutes (Choice C) is important but providing glucose should come first. Providing a high-calorie snack (Choice D) may not be as rapidly effective as administering oral glucose in quickly raising blood sugar levels in a patient experiencing hypoglycemia.

3. A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. What symptom should the nurse expect?

• A. Periorbital edema.
• B. Decreased frequency of urination.
• C. Enuresis.
• D. Diarrhea.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Enuresis. Enuresis, which refers to involuntary urination, is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in children. Periorbital edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome. Decreased frequency of urination (choice B) is not typically seen in urinary tract infections, as these infections often present with increased frequency. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical symptom of a urinary tract infection.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. aPTT of 38 seconds
• B. Hemoglobin of 15 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 80,000/mm3
• D. INR of 1.0

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise.
• B. Pursed-lip breathing with exertion.
• C. Productive cough with clear sputum.
• D. Clubbing of the fingers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.

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