Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Increased shortness of breath.
• B. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb).
• C. Clear lung sounds.
• D. Bounding pulse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate a therapeutic effect of furosemide, as the medication helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Choice A, increased shortness of breath, is incorrect as furosemide is used to relieve symptoms like shortness of breath. Choice B, weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb), is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention leading to weight loss. Choice D, bounding pulse, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact the pulse rate.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Platelet count
• C. INR
• D. WBC count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

4. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid nausea.''
• B. ''I should take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.''
• C. ''I should avoid eating foods that contain iodine.''
• D. ''I should take this medication with food to improve absorption.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metformin should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to improve absorption and prevent gastrointestinal upset. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is not typically taken at bedtime. Choice C is unrelated to metformin therapy. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is actually better absorbed when taken with or after meals.

5. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the stages of wound healing. The nurse should include in the teaching that collagen is added to the wound during which of the following stages?

• A. Hemostasis phase.
• B. Inflammatory phase.
• C. Proliferative phase.
• D. Maturation phase.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferative phase. During the proliferative phase of wound healing, collagen is added to the wound to promote tissue regeneration. In the hemostasis phase (choice A), the primary goal is to stop bleeding by forming a blood clot. The inflammatory phase (choice B) involves cleaning the wound and preparing it for healing. The maturation phase (choice D) is when the wound undergoes remodeling and gains strength, but collagen addition primarily occurs during the proliferative phase.

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