ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
- A. Chlamydia
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Chest tube drainage of 60 mL/hr
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Chest tube drainage of 120 mL/hr
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest tube drainage of more than 100 mL/hr may indicate active bleeding, which is a serious complication post-thoracotomy surgery. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal limits for a client 2 hours post-thoracotomy and do not require immediate reporting. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range for an adult.
4. A client who wears glasses is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Store the glasses in a labeled case
- B. Clean the glasses with hot water
- C. Clean the glasses with a paper towel
- D. Store the glasses on the bedside table
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to store the glasses in a labeled case. This ensures the safety of the glasses and helps in their proper identification when needed. Cleaning the glasses with hot water (Choice B) can damage them, and using a paper towel (Choice C) can scratch the lenses. Storing the glasses on the bedside table (Choice D) can lead to misplacement or damage. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to store the glasses in a labeled case.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Proteinuria of 1+.
- B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
- D. Nonpitting ankle edema.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.
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