Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

3. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Monitor blood pressure
• D. Check for edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to track changes in fluid status more precisely. While monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but may not directly reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice D) is useful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring in assessing fluid balance.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 80 mL/hr
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
• D. Heart rate of 72/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
• B. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
• C. Scant urine output
• D. Serosanguineous wound drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Serosanguineous wound drainage.' Serosanguineous drainage should be reported in postoperative clients as it may indicate complications such as infection or impaired wound healing. Options A, B, and C are expected findings in a postoperative client. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal function, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range, and scant urine output may be expected initially due to factors like anesthesia and fluid shifts postoperatively.

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