which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

2. Which laboratory test is essential for monitoring renal function in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine levels in a patient with chronic kidney disease. These tests provide crucial information about renal function. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice B) is important for monitoring diabetes, not renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (Choice C) helps assess anemia, not specifically renal function. Monitoring liver enzymes (Choice D) is relevant for assessing liver function, not renal function.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.

5. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to notify their provider if they experience visual disturbances. Visual disturbances can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for timely intervention. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect because a heart rate less than 60/min is not a sole reason to avoid taking digoxin; rather, it is important to monitor the heart rate and consult with the healthcare provider if there are concerns.

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