ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
2. A client is 24 hr postoperative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which of the following findings is a priority to report?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on dressing
- B. Abdominal distention
- C. Absent bowel sounds
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is indicative of decreased kidney function, potentially due to inadequate perfusion or other complications post-aneurysm resection. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent further complications such as acute kidney injury. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sounds are also important postoperative assessments but are not as critical as impaired kidney function in this scenario.
3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should have my vision checked regularly while taking this medication.
- B. This medication can cause my urine to turn reddish-orange.
- C. I need to wear sunscreen and protective clothing while taking this medication.
- D. I will discontinue this medication if I experience nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause a harmless reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. Choice A is not related to rifampin; vision changes are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is more relevant to medications that cause photosensitivity reactions, not specifically rifampin. Choice D is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect of rifampin, but it does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the medication.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Take this medication with a full glass of water after meals.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
- D. You can take this medication at any time of day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C. Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not after meals. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken at a specific time following the instructions given.
5. What is the primary action when a healthcare provider discovers a patient has fallen?
- A. Assess the patient for injuries
- B. Call for help immediately
- C. Document the fall
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a healthcare provider discovers a patient has fallen, the primary action should be to assess the patient for injuries. This is crucial to determine the extent of harm and if immediate treatment is necessary. Calling for help is important, but assessing the patient's condition takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. While documenting the fall and notifying the healthcare provider are essential steps, they come after assessing the patient's injuries.
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