Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with hypertension?

• A. Lisinopril
• B. Metformin
• C. Atorvastatin
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed to patients with hypertension to manage their blood pressure. Metformin is used to treat type 2 diabetes, not hypertension (choice B). Atorvastatin is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels, not primarily prescribed for hypertension (choice C). Aspirin is used for its antiplatelet effects and in preventing cardiovascular events, but it is not a first-line treatment for hypertension (choice D). Therefore, Lisinopril is the most suitable choice for a patient with hypertension.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. INR 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the stages of wound healing. The nurse should include in the teaching that collagen is added to the wound during which of the following stages?

• A. Hemostasis phase.
• B. Inflammatory phase.
• C. Proliferative phase.
• D. Maturation phase.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Proliferative phase. During the proliferative phase of wound healing, collagen is added to the wound to promote tissue regeneration. In the hemostasis phase (choice A), the primary goal is to stop bleeding by forming a blood clot. The inflammatory phase (choice B) involves cleaning the wound and preparing it for healing. The maturation phase (choice D) is when the wound undergoes remodeling and gains strength, but collagen addition primarily occurs during the proliferative phase.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

• A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• B. Increased urinary output.
• C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
• D. Decreased peripheral edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.

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