Nursing Elites

1. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and is experiencing fluid volume overload. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing fluid volume overload, the nurse should expect a decreased blood pressure. Fluid volume overload can lead to poor cardiac output, which in turn can cause a decrease in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not expected in fluid volume overload; decreased heart rate is not typically associated with fluid volume overload; and an increased heart rate is more commonly seen in response to fluid overload to compensate for the decreased cardiac output.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lorazepam
• B. Atenolol
• C. Naltrexone
• D. Methadone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the residual volume.
• B. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is the priority action before administering an enteral feeding through an NG tube. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting proper flow and digestion of the feeding. Checking the residual volume, flushing the tube, and warming the formula are important steps but come after ensuring the client is in the correct position to minimize the risk of complications.

5. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid nausea.''
• B. ''I should take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.''
• C. ''I should avoid eating foods that contain iodine.''
• D. ''I should take this medication with food to improve absorption.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metformin should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to improve absorption and prevent gastrointestinal upset. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is not typically taken at bedtime. Choice C is unrelated to metformin therapy. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is actually better absorbed when taken with or after meals.

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