ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should take this medication in the morning to reduce urination during the day.
- B. You may experience ringing in your ears as a side effect.
- C. This medication may cause your potassium level to decrease.
- D. You should consume foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?
- A. Fetal head compression
- B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- C. Umbilical cord compression
- D. Fetal hypoxia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?
- A. Constipation.
- B. Drowsiness.
- C. Orthostatic hypotension.
- D. Respiratory depression.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to preventing infections in immunocompromised clients. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically targeted at managing thrombocytopenia.
5. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?
- A. Educate the patient on the importance of medication
- B. Reassess the patient in 6 months
- C. Refer the patient to a specialist
- D. Discontinue the medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Educating the patient on the importance of medication is crucial when dealing with a patient who is non-compliant with their hypertension medication. By providing information about the significance of the medication in controlling blood pressure and preventing complications, the patient may be more motivated to adhere to the prescribed treatment. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (choice B) may lead to further deterioration of the patient's condition if non-compliance continues. Referring the patient to a specialist (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should be preceded by efforts to improve compliance. Discontinuing the medication (choice D) without addressing the non-compliance issue can have serious health consequences for the patient.
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