ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Start IV fluids
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial to help dilate the airways and improve breathing. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the most critical interventions during an acute asthma attack.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Heart rate of 82/min
- C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
- B. Turn the client every 4 hours
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Infuse the PRBCs over 8 hours.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the PRBCs through a 24-gauge catheter.
- D. Administer the PRBCs with lactated Ringer's solution.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.
5. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
- B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
- C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
- D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.
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