Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?

• A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
• B. Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
• C. WBC count 15,000/mm3
• D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery and is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Diaphoresis.
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common response to acute pain due to increased sympathetic nervous system activity. Options A and B, Bradycardia and Hypotension, are unlikely findings in a client experiencing acute pain as pain usually triggers an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and blood pressure. Option D, Hyperactive bowel sounds, is not typically associated with acute pain.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Tachypnea.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, prompting the body to increase respiratory rate to enhance oxygen uptake. Jaundice (choice A) is associated with liver issues, not anemia. Bradycardia (choice B) and Hypertension (choice D) are not typically expected findings in clients with anemia; instead, tachycardia may occur as the body compensates for the decreased oxygen delivery.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?

• A. Serum albumin.
• B. Ammonia.
• C. Bilirubin.
• D. Prothrombin time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. In clients with cirrhosis, impaired liver function can lead to elevated levels of ammonia in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by altered mental status. Serum albumin (Choice A) is typically decreased in cirrhosis due to the liver's reduced synthetic function. Bilirubin (Choice C) levels can be elevated in liver disease but may not always be the most specific marker for cirrhosis. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is prolonged in cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors.

5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

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