ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
- D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking clopidogrel should take the medication with a full glass of water to prevent gastrointestinal irritation. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to avoid foods high in potassium with clopidogrel. Choice B is unrelated to the medication's administration. Choice D is a duplication of choice C, providing no additional information.
2. A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?
- A. Keep the catheter clamped when not in use
- B. Have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed
- C. Use a non-coring needle to access the catheter
- D. Flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride every 24 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Crackles in the lung bases
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Heart rate of 88/min
- D. Frequent productive cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?
- A. Paradoxical pulse
- B. Dependent edema
- C. Pericardial friction rub
- D. Substernal chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.
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