a nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client to splint the incision with a pillow while coughing is the correct action in this scenario. This intervention helps reduce pain and prevent wound dehiscence, which is the partial or complete separation of the layers of a surgical wound. Monitoring urinary output is important but not the priority at this immediate postoperative stage. Providing a clear liquid diet may be indicated later but is not the most immediate concern. Encouraging ambulation is beneficial for preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis, but splinting the incision is more crucial at this early postoperative period.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client taking clopidogrel is to monitor for signs of infection. Clopidogrel affects platelet levels and can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because a compromised immune system can make the client more susceptible to infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because clopidogrel is not directly linked to alcohol restrictions, food requirements, or specific water intake instructions.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse the blood within 4 hours. This is crucial to prevent bacterial contamination and hemolysis during blood transfusions. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every hour (Choice A) is not directly related to packed RBC transfusions. Administering the blood using a microdrip set (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific medications but is not a requirement for packed RBC transfusions. Assessing the client's vital signs every 2 hours (Choice C) is important for monitoring the client's overall condition but is not as time-sensitive as ensuring the timely infusion of packed RBCs.

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