ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypotension.
- B. Weight loss.
- C. Hyperkalemia.
- D. Hypercalcemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse should expect hyperkalemia. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol levels, which can lead to potassium retention and result in hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypotension is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more common due to the effects of cortisol. Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome. Hypercalcemia is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to increased urinary calcium excretion.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?
- A. Loose stools.
- B. Jitteriness.
- C. Hypertonia.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jitteriness is a common symptom of neonatal hypoglycemia. When a newborn has a low blood glucose level, they may exhibit signs of central nervous system dysfunction, such as jitteriness. Loose stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with neonatal hypoglycemia. Hypertonia (Choice C) refers to increased muscle tone, which is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Abdominal distention (Choice D) is more often associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypoglycemia.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL.
- B. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- C. WBC count of 6,500/mm3.
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or malnutrition, which are critical concerns for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) can be managed by adjusting TPN components, WBC count (Choice C) and a slightly elevated temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to TPN administration and may not require immediate intervention.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Dry skin.
- C. Increased thirst.
- D. Increased urinary output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.
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