ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer thrombolytics as prescribed.
- B. Massage the affected extremity every 2 hours.
- C. Apply warm compresses to the affected extremity.
- D. Place the client in a supine position with the legs elevated.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm compresses to the affected extremity. Warm compresses help reduce swelling and pain in clients with DVT. Administering thrombolytics (Choice A) is not typically done without specific orders due to the risk of bleeding. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and lead to complications. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs elevated (Choice D) may increase the risk of clot dislodgment.
2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.''
- B. ''I should report a red rash to my provider.''
- C. ''I should stop taking this medication if I develop a cough.''
- D. ''I should expect black, tarry stools.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings is an indication for hemodialysis?
- A. BUN 16 mg/dL
- B. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
- C. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
- D. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min indicates severe kidney impairment and the need for hemodialysis. The other choices, such as BUN 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Does the doctor know you are eating that?
- B. Why are you eating seaweed soup?
- C. Of course, I will heat that up for you.
- D. The hospital food is more nutritious.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Respecting cultural preferences and providing client-centered care promotes trust.
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