ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will increase my intake of bananas.
- B. I will limit my intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. I will increase my intake of protein-rich foods.
- D. I will increase my intake of dairy products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas (choice A), protein-rich foods (choice C), or dairy products (choice D) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in these clients. Bananas, protein-rich foods, and dairy products are all high in potassium, which is detrimental for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
2. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery.
- B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours.
- C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hours.
- D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial in managing postoperative pain for the child. This helps control pain levels effectively, promoting comfort and aiding in the recovery process. Offering small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery may not be appropriate as the child may need time to recover from anesthesia. Giving cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours is not indicated for postoperative care following appendicitis surgery. Applying a warm compress every 4 hours to the operative site may not be recommended as it can potentially interfere with the surgical wound healing process.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
- A. Postprandial blood glucose
- B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
- C. Glucose tolerance test
- D. Fasting blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) is the most accurate test for long-term management of blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information on the effectiveness of treatment and disease control. Postprandial blood glucose, glucose tolerance test, and fasting blood glucose are essential for monitoring blood glucose levels at specific times but do not offer the same insight into long-term disease management as HbA1c.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat foods that are high in fiber.
- B. Avoid dairy products to reduce diarrhea.
- C. Eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms.
- D. You should increase your intake of whole grains.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms of Crohn's disease. This eating pattern can help manage symptoms by reducing the workload on the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because foods high in fiber can aggravate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice B is incorrect because not all individuals with Crohn's disease need to avoid dairy products, and it is not a universal recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because increasing whole grains may not be suitable for everyone with Crohn's disease, as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Jugular vein distention.
- D. Dependent edema.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.
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