a nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks gestation is in active labor and has ruptured membranes which of the following actions should the nu
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying a fetal heart rate monitor is the priority action in this scenario as it helps assess the well-being of the fetus during labor. This monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress and guide interventions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not a priority at this time unless there are specific indications. Initiating fundal massage (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on fetal assessment. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion (Choice D) is not indicated until the stage of labor and the progress of labor are determined.

2. What is the appropriate action when a patient presents with chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate action when a patient presents with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which can be beneficial in cases of myocardial infarction. Nitroglycerin is commonly used for chest pain related to angina but is not the first-line treatment for all types of chest pain. Repositioning the patient may be necessary for comfort or assessment but is not the immediate priority. Surgery is not typically the first-line intervention for chest pain unless there are specific indications.

3. A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. What information should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because absence seizures are brief and can be mistaken for daydreaming. Choice A is incorrect because absence seizures typically last a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. Choice C is incorrect as absence seizures usually occur suddenly without an aura. Choice D is incorrect because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride at 4 mcg/kg/min for a client weighing 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate, you first need to convert the weight to micrograms: 4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg = 320 mcg/min. Then, convert micrograms to milligrams: 320 mcg/min / 1000 = 0.32 mg/min. Next, calculate how many milligrams per hour: 0.32 mg/min * 60 min/hr = 19.2 mg/hr. Finally, determine the mL/hr rate by using the concentration provided: 19.2 mg/hr / 800 mg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choice B, 8 mL/hr, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the weight and drug concentration. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 16 mL/hr, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation of the infusion rate for dopamine hydrochloride based on the client's weight and the medication concentration.

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