Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Apply fetal heart rate monitor
• C. Initiate fundal massage
• D. Initiate an oxytocin IV infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying a fetal heart rate monitor is the priority action in this scenario as it helps assess the well-being of the fetus during labor. This monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress and guide interventions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not a priority at this time unless there are specific indications. Initiating fundal massage (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on fetal assessment. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion (Choice D) is not indicated until the stage of labor and the progress of labor are determined.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of amoxicillin to a client who has an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
• B. Verify the client's allergy status before administering the medication.
• C. Ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic.
• D. Check the client's skin for any rashes before administering the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic instead of administering amoxicillin to a client with a known penicillin allergy. Choice A is incorrect because administering amoxicillin to a client with a penicillin allergy can lead to an allergic reaction. Choice B is not the best option as simply verifying the client's allergy status does not address the potential harm of giving amoxicillin. Choice D is irrelevant as checking the client's skin for rashes does not address the issue of administering a potentially harmful medication. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to request a different antibiotic from the provider to ensure the safety of the client.

3. A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being discharged. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication with food.
• B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• C. I should avoid crowded places while taking this medication.
• D. I will take this medication until my symptoms resolve.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking prednisone should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to immunosuppression. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone is usually prescribed for a specific duration and not for life. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, which may not always align with symptom resolution.

4. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication 1 hour before meals.
• B. I should take this medication 30 minutes after meals.
• C. I should take this medication only when I have symptoms of heartburn.
• D. I should take this medication with a glass of milk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 2.0
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. aPTT 60 seconds
• D. WBC count 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

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