ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum protein
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a child who is being treated for bacterial pneumonia. The provider notes an increase in the child's glucose level. The provider should identify this finding as an adverse effect of which of the following medications?
- A. Methylprednisolone.
- B. Ondansetron.
- C. Guaifenesin.
- D. Amoxicillin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, can lead to increased glucose levels as an adverse effect. Ondansetron is an antiemetic and does not typically cause elevated glucose levels. Guaifenesin is an expectorant and is not associated with raising glucose levels. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic and does not affect glucose levels.
3. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?
- A. Monitor lung sounds
- B. Check oxygen saturation
- C. Assess for cough
- D. Assess for fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.
4. A client with asthma asks how to use a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Use the peak flow meter at the same time each day.
- B. Take a slow, deep breath and blow out as hard as you can.
- C. Keep a log of your peak flow readings.
- D. Perform the test before using any bronchodilators.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to perform the peak flow test before using any bronchodilators. This is important because it provides the most accurate baseline measurement of lung function. Choice A is not necessarily crucial for the accuracy of the test. Choice B describes the technique for spirometry, not peak flow meter use. Choice C, while important for tracking trends, is not directly related to the accuracy of the initial measurement.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
- D. INR 1.5
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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