ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum protein
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.
2. A client with vision loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Keep objects in the client's room in the same place
- B. Ensure there is high-wattage lighting in the client's room
- C. Approach the client from the side
- D. Touch the client gently to announce presence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep objects in the client's room in the same place. This helps individuals with vision loss navigate their environment more easily by creating a familiar and consistent layout. Choice B, ensuring high-wattage lighting, may not be suitable for all clients with vision loss and can cause discomfort or glare. Approaching the client from the side (Choice C) can startle them and is not recommended. Touching the client (Choice D) without warning may cause anxiety or distress, so it's important to announce presence verbally.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Cough.
- B. Dry mouth.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A persistent cough is a known adverse effect of enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to a dry, persistent cough in some patients. Dry mouth (choice B) and urinary retention (choice C) are not typically associated with enalapril use. Insomnia (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Low back pain
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Flushed skin
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Tachycardia can indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction, a severe and life-threatening complication of blood transfusion. The nurse should report tachycardia immediately to prevent further complications. Low back pain, flushed skin, and headache are also important to monitor during a blood transfusion, but they are not as indicative of a severe transfusion reaction as tachycardia.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Passing small clots in the urine.
- B. Continuous bladder irrigation.
- C. Red-tinged urine with numerous clots.
- D. Urine output of 50 mL/hr.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Red-tinged urine with numerous clots. This finding should be reported because it indicates excessive bleeding following a TURP procedure. Passing small clots in the urine (choice A) is expected post-TURP. Continuous bladder irrigation (choice B) is a standard procedure after TURP to prevent clot retention. Urine output of 50 mL/hr (choice D) is within the expected range postoperatively and does not indicate a complication.
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