ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Facial flushing
- B. Syncope
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. You may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with a potassium supplement.
- D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken once daily, but not necessarily at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can actually increase potassium levels, so taking it with a potassium supplement may lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because antacids may reduce the effectiveness of lisinopril, so it should not be taken with them.
3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Administer bronchodilators
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.
4. A client with a new colostomy requires care planning by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days.
- B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is half full.
- C. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
- D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and leakage by maintaining a clean and secure seal around the stoma. Option B is incorrect because it is more important to change the pouch regularly rather than emptying it when half full. Option C is incorrect as applying a skin barrier is typically done during the initial application of the pouch, not during regular changes. Option D is incorrect because alcohol can be too harsh for the peristomal skin and can cause irritation.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. aPTT
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.
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