ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Facial flushing
- B. Syncope
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
3. A client is 24 hours postoperative following a right-sided mastectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in the supine position.
- B. Encourage the client to lift objects with the right arm.
- C. Measure the client's blood pressure on the right arm.
- D. Elevate the client's right arm on a pillow.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the client's right arm on a pillow is essential post-mastectomy to reduce swelling and promote circulation. Placing the client in the supine position may not be comfortable or ideal after a mastectomy. Encouraging the client to lift objects with the right arm can strain the surgical site and hinder healing. Measuring the client's blood pressure on the right arm should be avoided to prevent disruption to the area and inaccurate readings.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 90/min.
- B. WBC count 15,000/mm3.
- C. Urinary output 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
- D. Temperature 37.8°C (100°F).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.
5. A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?
- A. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank.
- B. Collecting a urine sample.
- C. Measuring the client's pain level.
- D. Transporting a client to x-ray.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.
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