a nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome which of the following finding
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, the liver is unable to produce clotting factors efficiently, leading to impaired clotting function. Therefore, an increased prothrombin time is expected in cirrhosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased bilirubin levels are not typically seen in cirrhosis; prothrombin time is usually increased, not decreased; and albumin levels are often decreased in cirrhosis due to reduced synthetic liver function.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Raynaud's disease is a condition where the blood vessels narrow in response to cold or stress, leading to reduced blood flow to certain areas of the body, usually the fingers and toes. Stress management helps reduce triggers for Raynaud's disease by minimizing emotional stress, which can trigger vasospasms. Choice B is incorrect as maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, is recommended for individuals with Raynaud's disease to prevent triggering vasospasms. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not typically used to manage Raynaud's disease, as it can further constrict blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not a first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which dietary recommendation should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps reduce IBS symptoms by promoting regular bowel movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products can exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high FODMAP content, and increasing foods high in gluten could be problematic for individuals with gluten sensitivities or celiac disease, which are common in some with IBS.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is experiencing withdrawal. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with alcohol use disorder experiencing withdrawal is to administer diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage withdrawal symptoms in these clients by reducing anxiety, tremors, and the risk of seizures. Administering naloxone (Choice A) is used for opioid overdose, not alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging oral fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial but not a specific intervention for alcohol withdrawal. Administering magnesium sulfate (Choice D) is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal but may be used for other conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia.

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