ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Facial flushing
- B. Syncope
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following precautions should the nurse implement?
- A. Place the client in a negative pressure room
- B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when entering the room
- C. Wear a gown and gloves when providing care to the client
- D. Place a face mask on the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct precaution to implement when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile infection is to wear a gown and gloves when providing care. Clostridium difficile is primarily spread through contact with feces, so wearing personal protective equipment like gowns and gloves is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection. Placing the client in a negative pressure room (Choice A) is not necessary for Clostridium difficile. While wearing an N95 respirator mask (Choice B) is important for airborne precautions, it is not required for Clostridium difficile. Placing a face mask on the client (Choice D) is not a standard precaution for preventing the spread of Clostridium difficile.
3. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range and indicates hypokalemia, which should be reported to the provider. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not critically high. A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range. A serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL is also within the normal range.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
- B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- C. Heart rate of 94/min
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.
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