ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about food choices to increase iron intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Eggs
- B. Carrots
- C. White bread
- D. Spinach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Spinach is an excellent choice to recommend as it is rich in non-heme iron, which can help improve iron levels in clients with iron deficiency anemia. Eggs (Choice A) are a good source of protein but do not contain as much iron as spinach. Carrots (Choice B) are rich in vitamin A but are not a significant source of iron. White bread (Choice C) is not a good source of iron compared to spinach.
2. A client with cancer is about to receive low-dose brachytherapy via a vaginal implant. What intervention should be included in the care plan?
- A. Remove vaginal packing.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Ambulate the client four times daily.
- D. Keep the client NPO until therapy is complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention that should be included in the care plan for a client about to receive low-dose brachytherapy via a vaginal implant is to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. This is crucial to prevent bladder distention during brachytherapy, ensuring the treatment's effectiveness and the client's comfort. Removing vaginal packing (Choice A) may not be necessary or appropriate in this situation. Ambulating the client four times daily (Choice C) is a good nursing intervention for general patient care but is not specifically related to brachytherapy via a vaginal implant. Keeping the client NPO until therapy is complete (Choice D) is not necessary unless specifically indicated due to the treatment's nature or the client's condition.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Check blood pressure
- C. Monitor IV site
- D. Check respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.
4. A client is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypocalcemia?
- A. Constipation
- B. Numbness and tingling of the fingers
- C. Increased thirst
- D. Frequent urination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia, a condition that may result from inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands during a thyroidectomy. These symptoms occur due to decreased levels of calcium in the bloodstream affecting nerve function. Choices A, C, and D are not typical manifestations of hypocalcemia. Constipation is more associated with hypercalcemia, increased thirst can be seen in diabetes or dehydration, and frequent urination is a symptom more commonly linked to conditions like diabetes or urinary tract issues.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
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