a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lorazepam is the appropriate intervention for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam helps reduce agitation and prevent complications during this withdrawal phase. Choice A, providing a low-sodium diet, is not directly related to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Choice C, keeping the client in a supine position, is not necessary and may not address the client's withdrawal symptoms. Choice D, placing the client in restraints, should only be considered if the client is at risk of harming themselves or others, but it is not the primary intervention for managing alcohol withdrawal.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's Wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which condition as a result of an interaction between these substances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can occur due to the interaction between citalopram, an SSRI, and St. John's Wort, an herbal supplement. Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, and sweating. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, and acute dystonia is a movement disorder caused by certain medications like antipsychotics.

4. What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.

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