ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with vision loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Keep objects in the client's room in the same place
- B. Ensure there is high-wattage lighting in the client's room
- C. Approach the client from the side
- D. Touch the client gently to announce presence
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep objects in the client's room in the same place. This helps individuals with vision loss navigate their environment more easily by creating a familiar and consistent layout. Choice B, ensuring high-wattage lighting, may not be suitable for all clients with vision loss and can cause discomfort or glare. Approaching the client from the side (Choice C) can startle them and is not recommended. Touching the client (Choice D) without warning may cause anxiety or distress, so it's important to announce presence verbally.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will use this medication to prevent an asthma attack.
- B. I will use this medication for shortness of breath during an asthma attack.
- C. I will take this medication with my daily vitamins.
- D. I will take this medication at bedtime to prevent an asthma attack.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because albuterol is used to treat shortness of breath during an asthma attack. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is a rescue medication used during an asthma attack, not for prevention. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol should not be taken with daily vitamins. Choice D is incorrect as albuterol is not typically taken at bedtime for asthma prevention.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.
4. A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the professional make in the medical record?
- A. Morphine 3 mg SC every 4 hr. PRN for pain
- B. Morphine 3 mg Subcutaneous
- C. Morphine 3.0 mg subq every 4 hr. PRN for pain
- D. Morphine 3 mg SC q 4 hr. PRN for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct entry for the medication in the medical record should include the abbreviation 'SC' (subcutaneous) for the route of administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately represents the prescription received. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the frequency and PRN indication. Choice C is incorrect due to the incorrect abbreviation 'subq' and the missing 'q' before the frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it uses 'SC' but the frequency abbreviation 'q' should be followed by the time interval.
5. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
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