a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 1 day postpartum and plans to breastfeed which of the following statements by the client indicates an
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A client who is 1 day postpartum plans to breastfeed. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using both breasts at each feeding helps ensure adequate milk production and consumption. Option A is incorrect because breastfeeding should be done on demand rather than following a strict schedule. Option B is incorrect as limiting feeding time to 5 minutes per breast may not provide the baby with enough milk. Option D is also incorrect as pumping should not replace direct breastfeeding unless there is a specific medical reason to do so.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's Wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which condition as a result of an interaction between these substances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can occur due to the interaction between citalopram, an SSRI, and St. John's Wort, an herbal supplement. Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, and sweating. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, and acute dystonia is a movement disorder caused by certain medications like antipsychotics.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.

4. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

5. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction when taking alendronate is to remain upright for 30 minutes after administration. This helps prevent esophageal irritation, a known side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option B is incorrect as taking alendronate with food decreases its absorption. Option D is incorrect as alendronate should be swallowed whole with a full glass of water and not chewed.

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