Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will monitor my blood sugar level once a week.
• B. I will exercise every day even if my blood sugar is low.
• C. I will eat snacks rich in carbohydrates if my blood sugar drops.
• D. I will avoid sugary foods to prevent my blood sugar from rising.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating snacks rich in carbohydrates is essential to manage hypoglycemia by raising blood sugar levels. Option A is incorrect as monitoring blood sugar once a week is not frequent enough for effective diabetes management. Option B is incorrect because exercising when blood sugar is low can worsen hypoglycemia. Option D is incorrect as it focuses on preventing high blood sugar levels, not managing low blood sugar.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In hypovolemia, the body responds to decreased fluid volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain adequate circulation. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not expected in hypovolemia since the heart rate typically increases to compensate for the reduced blood volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is unlikely in hypovolemia as the decreased fluid volume leads to decreased pressure. A bounding pulse (Choice D) is more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or fever, not specifically with hypovolemia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Gastric pH of 2.5.
• B. Bowel sounds every 4 hours.
• C. Diarrhea of 250 mL in 24 hours.
• D. Gastric residual of 150 mL.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A gastric residual of 150 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying and should be reported to the provider.

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