Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute
• B. BUN 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Assess the client's pain level.
• B. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
• C. Measure the client's blood pressure.
• D. Check the client's bowel sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. This assessment is crucial in the postoperative period to detect any respiratory complications such as hypoxia or respiratory distress. Assessing pain level (Choice A) is important but may not be the top priority as respiratory status takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure (Choice C) is also important but not as critical immediately postoperatively as monitoring respiratory function. Checking bowel sounds (Choice D) is relevant for assessing gastrointestinal function but is typically not the top priority in the immediate postoperative phase.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

• A. Elevated hemoglobin
• B. Elevated white blood cell count
• C. Decreased fibrinogen level
• D. Decreased platelet count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle changes to manage the condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid eating small, frequent meals.
• B. Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.
• C. Lie down after eating.
• D. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.' Elevating the head of the bed helps reduce acid reflux by keeping the head higher than the stomach, preventing stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding eating small, frequent meals, lying down after eating, and drinking fluids with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing stomach acid production and promoting acid reflux.

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