Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

2. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?

• A. Varicella vaccine.
• B. Inactivated polio vaccine.
• C. Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine.
• D. Inactivated influenza vaccine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure continuously
• B. Weigh the client daily
• C. Monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration
• D. Measure the client's intake and output every 2 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.

4. A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Polyuria
• C. Epistaxis
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 2.0
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. aPTT 60 seconds
• D. WBC count 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

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