which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing education on medication is crucial when managing a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication. By educating the patient on the importance of adherence, potential side effects, and the impact of uncontrolled hypertension, healthcare professionals can help improve the patient's understanding and compliance. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but should not be the first step. Discontinuing the medication (Choice C) without exploring reasons for non-compliance and providing education can worsen the patient's condition. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) is important but should be accompanied by interventions to address non-compliance in the interim.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.

5. A client with COPD is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Using pursed-lip breathing techniques is beneficial for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath by keeping airways open longer. Option A is incorrect as deep breathing while using an incentive spirometer is essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis. Option B is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation for clients with COPD. Option C is incorrect as exercising in a humid area can exacerbate breathing difficulties for clients with COPD.

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