ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. I should avoid lifting objects heavier than 5 pounds for 1 week.
- B. I can resume my usual activities after 2 weeks.
- C. I should expect to have pain in my right shoulder.
- D. I should follow a low-protein diet for 1 week.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pain in the right shoulder after a cholecystectomy is common due to residual gas from the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. It is important to avoid heavy lifting for a longer period than just 1 week to prevent complications. Resuming usual activities after 2 weeks may not be appropriate depending on the individual's recovery. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation post-cholecystectomy.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in a seclusion room following violent behavior. The client continues to display aggressive behavior. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Confront the client about this behavior
- B. Express sympathy for the client's situation
- C. Speak assertively to the client
- D. Stand within 30 cm (1 ft) of the client when speaking with them
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, speaking assertively is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. Confronting the client may escalate the situation further. Expressing sympathy, although important in other contexts, may not be effective in managing aggressive behavior. Standing within close proximity to an aggressive client can compromise the nurse's safety. Therefore, speaking assertively helps to set clear boundaries and manage the situation while ensuring safety in a seclusion room.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.
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