Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
• C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
• D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

2. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor heart rate daily.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor heart rate daily.' When a client is prescribed digoxin, it is essential to monitor heart rate daily because digoxin can cause bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate regularly allows the client to promptly identify any signs of bradycardia and seek medical attention if needed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with food, avoiding grapefruit juice, and increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects or monitoring parameters of digoxin therapy.

3. The client with chronic stable angina is prescribed a beta blocker. The nurse is reinforcing instructions. What instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a meal.
• B. Report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute.
• C. Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute. Beta blockers are known to lower heart rate, and a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, a condition that requires medical attention. Option A, 'Take the medication with a meal,' is incorrect because beta blockers don't necessarily need to be taken with food. Option C, 'Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs,' is incorrect because abrupt cessation of beta blockers can lead to rebound hypertension and other adverse effects. Option D, 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice,' is unrelated to beta blockers' mechanism of action or side effects.

4. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following beverages should the client avoid while taking this medication?

• A. Orange juice
• B. Coffee
• C. Milk
• D. Grapefruit juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided while taking verapamil as it can increase drug levels and the risk of side effects. The interaction between grapefruit juice and verapamil can lead to higher concentrations of the medication in the bloodstream, potentially causing adverse effects. Orange juice, coffee, and milk do not have significant interactions with verapamil. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice to ensure the safe and effective use of verapamil.

5. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.

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