a nurse is planning care for a client who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago which of the following instructio
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.

2. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is to allow the client enough time to perform rituals. This helps manage anxiety and stress in individuals with OCD. Allowing time for rituals can provide a sense of control and reduce distress. Choice B, giving the client autonomy in scheduling activities, may not address the core symptoms of OCD related to rituals and compulsions. Choice C, discouraging the client from exploring irrational fears, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is a common treatment for OCD. Choice D, providing negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors, is not recommended as it can reinforce the behavior rather than help the client manage it.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

4. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

5. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.

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