ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication 1 hour before meals.
- B. I should take this medication 30 minutes after meals.
- C. I should take this medication only when I have symptoms of heartburn.
- D. I should take this medication with a glass of milk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Platelets
- C. aPTT
- D. INR
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.
4. What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Encourage ambulation
- C. Apply compression stockings
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in patients with suspected DVT. Encouraging ambulation can be beneficial in preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Compression stockings are more for DVT prevention rather than treatment. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important in assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.
5. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
- B. Weigh yourself daily to monitor for fluid retention.
- C. Drink 2 liters of water each day.
- D. Increase physical activity gradually.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing oneself daily is crucial in monitoring fluid retention, a key aspect in managing heart failure. This helps in detecting early signs of fluid buildup, prompting timely interventions. Choice A is incorrect as the recommended sodium intake for heart failure clients is usually lower, around 2-3 grams daily. Choice C is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as clients with heart failure should consult healthcare providers before significantly altering their physical activity levels.
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