four clients present to the emergency department the nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

3. What is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath as it helps alleviate the symptoms and improve oxygenation. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen levels in the body, which can be a life-threatening situation. Administering bronchodilators (choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma but is not the initial intervention for all causes of shortness of breath. Repositioning the patient (choice C) can sometimes help improve breathing, but in a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, immediate oxygen therapy is crucial. Providing IV fluids (choice D) is not indicated as the first-line intervention for shortness of breath unless there is a specific underlying cause such as dehydration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a craniotomy. Which of the following findings indicates the client is developing diabetes insipidus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polyuria is the correct finding indicating the client is developing diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of large volumes of diluted urine due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone. This results in increased urine output (polyuria) despite adequate fluid intake. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus but can be seen in other conditions. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperglycemia (choice D) are also not typical findings of diabetes insipidus.

5. A client is receiving discharge teaching regarding a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin should avoid leafy green vegetables as they are high in vitamin K, which can reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Therefore, the statement 'I will eat more leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin' indicates a need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as regular monitoring of INR levels is necessary for clients on warfarin. Choice C is correct as grapefruit juice can interact with warfarin and should be avoided. Choice D is correct as using a soft toothbrush is recommended to prevent gum bleeding while on warfarin.

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