ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
- A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated left shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old client with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with a history of depression who is experiencing a situational crisis. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
- B. Notify the client's support system.
- C. Help the client identify personal strengths.
- D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Confirming the client's perception of the event is crucial in understanding how they are interpreting the crisis situation. This helps the nurse gain insight into the client's perspective, emotions, and needs. By validating the client's perception, the nurse can establish trust and rapport, which are essential in providing effective support during a crisis. Notifying the client's support system (Choice B) may be important but should come after understanding the client's perspective. Helping the client identify personal strengths (Choice C) and teaching relaxation techniques (Choice D) are valuable interventions but should follow the initial step of confirming the client's perception to ensure individualized care.
3. What is the best method to assess for fluid overload in patients with heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for jugular vein distention
- C. Check for pitting edema
- D. Check for fluid retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate method to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention before visible signs like jugular vein distention or pitting edema appear. Checking for jugular vein distention (choice B) is helpful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring. Pitting edema (choice C) and fluid retention (choice D) are signs of fluid overload, but daily weight monitoring is a more proactive approach to detect changes early.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
- B. Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL
- C. INR 3.0
- D. Ammonia 80 mcg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees during feedings.
- B. Place the client in the left lateral position for 30 minutes after feedings.
- C. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding.
- D. Check gastric residuals every 8 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to prevent aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This positioning helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the client in the left lateral position after feedings does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the tube with sterile water before each feeding is important for tube patency but does not specifically prevent aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours is necessary to monitor the client's tolerance to feedings but is not a direct preventive measure against aspiration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access