a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following foods should the nurse recommend
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the nitroglycerin transdermal patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime. This schedule helps prevent tolerance to the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be rotated to different sites to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect as daily rotation is recommended, not daily application to the same site. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should be removed during a bath as it may decrease the efficacy of the medication.

5. A nurse realizes that the wrong medication has been administered to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take after realizing that the wrong medication has been administered to a client is to monitor vital signs. Monitoring vital signs is crucial as it allows the nurse to promptly assess for any immediate adverse effects that may result from the wrong medication. This immediate assessment is essential for ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Notifying the provider (choice A) and reporting the incident to the nurse manager (choice B) are important steps to take, but they should come after ensuring the client's immediate safety. Filling out an incident report (choice D) is also necessary but should be done after addressing the client's immediate needs.

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