ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Canned soup
- B. Bananas
- C. White bread
- D. Processed meats
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
- B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
- C. Heart rate of 92/min.
- D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.
4. How should a healthcare provider handle a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?
- A. Provide education about medication
- B. Refer the patient to a specialist
- C. Explore alternative treatments
- D. Reassess the patient in 6 months
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Providing education about the importance of medication adherence is crucial in managing hypertension. By educating the patient about the significance of taking their medication as prescribed, the healthcare provider can help improve compliance and control the patient's blood pressure. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Exploring alternative treatments (Choice C) could be considered if the current medication is not suitable, but initial steps should focus on improving adherence. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) may be too delayed if non-compliance is an issue that needs immediate attention.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site can indicate a bile leak, which is an abnormal finding and should be reported. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Serosanguineous wound drainage, which is a mix of blood and serum, is expected following a surgery like cholecystectomy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not findings that require immediate reporting.
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