ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to drink adequate fluids daily.
- B. Administer pain medication as needed.
- C. Instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a balanced diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client post-bowel resection is to instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow. This technique helps prevent dehiscence, which is the separation of wound edges, and reduces pain when coughing or moving. Splinting supports the incision site, decreasing tension on the wound. Encouraging the client to drink adequate fluids promotes hydration and aids in recovery, but a specific volume like 1,000 mL mentioned in choice A is not essential. Pain medication should be administered as needed for adequate pain control, not necessarily before every meal. Instructing the client to eat a balanced diet, including adequate protein, is crucial for wound healing and overall recovery, rather than limiting protein intake.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
3. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Monitor serum creatinine
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor urine output
- D. Monitor potassium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?
- A. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle
- B. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle
- C. Inject the medication slowly after aspiration
- D. Massage the site after injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: When administering an intramuscular injection, the needle should be inserted at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the muscle tissue. Option B is incorrect because a 45-degree angle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, not intramuscular. Option C is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for intramuscular injections. Option D is incorrect as massaging the site after an intramuscular injection can cause tissue damage or interfere with the absorption of the medication.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
- B. Turn the client every 4 hours
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.
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