Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to drink adequate fluids daily.
• B. Administer pain medication as needed.
• C. Instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow.
• D. Encourage the client to eat a balanced diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client post-bowel resection is to instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow. This technique helps prevent dehiscence, which is the separation of wound edges, and reduces pain when coughing or moving. Splinting supports the incision site, decreasing tension on the wound. Encouraging the client to drink adequate fluids promotes hydration and aids in recovery, but a specific volume like 1,000 mL mentioned in choice A is not essential. Pain medication should be administered as needed for adequate pain control, not necessarily before every meal. Instructing the client to eat a balanced diet, including adequate protein, is crucial for wound healing and overall recovery, rather than limiting protein intake.

2. A client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min
• B. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing
• C. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
• D. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sanguineous drainage from the surgical site 48 hours after surgery could indicate a complication such as hemorrhage or infection and should be reported. Sanguineous drainage is typically seen in the early postoperative period due to the presence of blood. Serous drainage, on the other hand, is normal in the later stages of wound healing. A heart rate of 80/min is within the normal range for an adult. A temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in the absence of other symptoms.

3. A client is receiving discharge teaching regarding a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication until my symptoms are gone.
• B. I will take this medication until it is finished.
• C. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I will take this medication with milk.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. It is crucial for clients to complete the entire course of antibiotics as prescribed, even if symptoms improve. This helps to ensure that the infection is fully treated and reduces the risk of developing antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms disappear can lead to incomplete treatment. Choice C is incorrect as amoxicillin can be taken with or without food. Choice D is incorrect because taking amoxicillin with milk can decrease its absorption.

4. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and is experiencing dumping syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer a refrigerated feeding.
• B. Increase the amount of water used to flush the tubing.
• C. Decrease the rate of the client's feedings.
• D. Instruct the client to move onto their right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine. Symptoms can include abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. To manage dumping syndrome in a client receiving enteral tube feedings, the nurse should decrease the rate of the feedings. This intervention helps slow down the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the symptoms. Administering a refrigerated feeding (choice A) or increasing the amount of water used to flush the tubing (choice B) are not appropriate actions for addressing dumping syndrome. Instructing the client to move onto their right side (choice D) is not a relevant intervention for managing dumping syndrome in this scenario.

5. What is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient receiving digoxin?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient receiving digoxin because it can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) and Hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not directly related to digoxin therapy and do not pose the same risk of toxicity.

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