a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy which of the following instructions
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The adhesive bandage should be removed 3 days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to allow the incision to heal properly. Choice A is incorrect as the client should start with a clear liquid diet and advance to a regular diet as tolerated. Choice C is incorrect because the client should gradually increase activity levels as tolerated. Choice D is incorrect as the client should avoid tub baths and opt for showers to prevent infection and promote healing.

2. During a change-of-shift report, a nurse is receiving information about an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and stable. Reporting this information is crucial to monitor the client's condition postoperatively. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F) is normal, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the expected range for an adult female client, so these values do not raise concerns that require immediate reporting.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime is crucial for managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Option A is incorrect because limiting protein intake is not a primary focus for diabetes management. Option B is unrelated to diabetes management and focuses on pain relief. Option D mentions reducing carbohydrate intake, which is a common dietary recommendation for managing blood sugar levels, but it is not as specific as monitoring blood glucose levels at key times.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.

5. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

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