ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer IV dextrose
- B. Administer oral glucose
- C. Monitor blood sugar levels
- D. Recheck blood sugar in 15 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia is to administer IV dextrose. This intervention is necessary to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in critical situations. Administering oral glucose may not be effective in severe cases as the patient may be unable to consume it. Monitoring blood sugar levels and rechecking blood sugar in 15 minutes are important steps but not the initial best intervention for severe hypoglycemia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Joint pain that improves with rest.
- B. Joint stiffness that improves with movement.
- C. Red, warm joints.
- D. Systemic inflammation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In osteoarthritis, joint pain that improves with rest is a common characteristic due to the relief obtained by reducing weight-bearing on the affected joint. Joint stiffness that improves with movement is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Red, warm joints are typically seen in inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, while systemic inflammation is not a primary feature of osteoarthritis.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.
4. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
- A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
- B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
5. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?
- A. Loose stools.
- B. Jitteriness.
- C. Hypertonia.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jitteriness is a common symptom of neonatal hypoglycemia. When a newborn has a low blood glucose level, they may exhibit signs of central nervous system dysfunction, such as jitteriness. Loose stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with neonatal hypoglycemia. Hypertonia (Choice C) refers to increased muscle tone, which is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Abdominal distention (Choice D) is more often associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypoglycemia.
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