Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication with food.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects of this medication?

• A. Improved mental status.
• B. Increased urine output.
• C. Decreased serum ammonia.
• D. Decreased bilirubin levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum ammonia. Lactulose is prescribed to decrease serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy. By reducing serum ammonia, lactulose helps improve the mental status of these clients. Therefore, monitoring for decreased serum ammonia is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy. Choice A (Improved mental status) is indirectly related as it is the desired outcome of decreasing ammonia levels. Choices B (Increased urine output) and D (Decreased bilirubin levels) are not directly associated with the therapeutic effects of lactulose in cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.

3. How should a healthcare professional educate a patient on the use of an incentive spirometer?

• A. Instruct the patient to take deep breaths
• B. Instruct the patient to cough forcefully
• C. Instruct the patient to blow into the spirometer
• D. Instruct the patient to use the spirometer every hour

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the patient to use the spirometer every hour is crucial for optimal lung expansion and to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications. This regular use helps to keep the lungs clear and maintain their capacity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because deep breathing, forceful coughing, and blowing into the spirometer do not specifically address the proper use of the incentive spirometer, which is essential for postoperative respiratory recovery.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by observing which of the following?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all fields
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally
• D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because when a client reports feeling less anxious, it suggests that the treatment for a pulmonary embolism is effective. This is a good indicator of the client's overall well-being and response to treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a chest x-ray revealing increased density in all fields, diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally, and ABG results showing specific values do not directly correlate with the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. While these assessments are important for monitoring the client's condition, the client's subjective report of feeling less anxious provides a more direct insight into the impact of the treatment.

5. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

• A. Substernal retractions
• B. Hematuria
• C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
• D. Sneezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

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