Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Piloerection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place the client in the supine position.
• B. Perform chest percussion every 4 hours.
• C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pneumonia is to perform chest percussion every 4 hours. Chest percussion helps loosen secretions and improve airway clearance in clients with pneumonia. Placing the client in the supine position can worsen breathing, so it is incorrect. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is a common intervention for clients with respiratory issues but is not specific to pneumonia. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL/day may not be appropriate as pneumonia can lead to dehydration, so it is not the priority intervention.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min
• B. BUN 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min is significantly low, indicating poor kidney function and the need for hemodialysis to remove waste products effectively. BUN, serum magnesium, and serum phosphorus levels are important in assessing kidney function and electrolyte balance but are not direct indicators for the initiation of hemodialysis. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) reflects the kidney's ability to filter waste products, serum magnesium levels are important for muscle and nerve function, and serum phosphorus levels are vital for bone health.

5. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?

• A. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• D. You should avoid taking this medication with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.

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