ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a suspected stroke?
- A. Administer thrombolytics
- B. Perform a neurological assessment
- C. Perform a CT scan
- D. Administer oxygen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a suspected stroke. This assessment helps determine the severity of the stroke, identify potential deficits, and guide further interventions. Administering thrombolytics (Choice A) should only be done after a CT scan to confirm the type of stroke and rule out hemorrhagic stroke. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is important but is typically done after stabilizing the patient. Administering oxygen (Choice D) is essential to maintain adequate oxygenation, but performing a neurological assessment takes precedence in the immediate management of a suspected stroke.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Turn the client every 2 hours
- B. Use a donut-shaped cushion when sitting
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for preventing pressure ulcers in a client at risk is to turn the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and preventing tissue damage. Using a donut-shaped cushion can actually increase pressure on the skin and worsen the risk of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for preventing aspiration in some cases but does not directly address pressure ulcer prevention. Massaging reddened areas can further damage the skin and increase the risk of pressure ulcer development by causing friction and shearing forces.
3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
- B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
- C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
- D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is the appropriate intervention when caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing mania. During manic episodes, individuals often exhibit hyperactivity and may become exhausted. Rest periods can help reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Spending time in the day room may not address the client's need for rest, withdrawing TV privileges is not directly related to managing mania symptoms, and placing the client in seclusion when anxious can escalate the situation rather than promoting a calming environment.
4. What is the most important nursing assessment for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Check for leg pain
- B. Perform Homan's sign test
- C. Monitor for redness
- D. Assess for warmth and swelling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing assessment for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to check for leg pain. Leg pain is a cardinal symptom of DVT and is often the initial indicator of a blood clot. While assessing for warmth, swelling, and redness are also important in DVT evaluation, leg pain is the most crucial as it can prompt further diagnostic testing and interventions. Performing Homan's sign test is no longer recommended due to its low specificity and potential to dislodge a clot, causing complications. Monitoring for redness is important but may not always be present in DVT cases. Assessing for warmth and swelling is relevant but still secondary to the assessment of leg pain in suspected DVT cases.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
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