a nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following interventions should the nurse implement
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Canned soup. Canned soups are usually high in sodium, which can increase blood pressure and should be avoided by clients with hypertension. Lean cuts of beef, bananas, and baked chicken are healthier options for individuals with hypertension as they are lower in sodium and can be included in a balanced diet to manage blood pressure levels.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine output of 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of dehydration or kidney impairment postoperatively. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within normal parameters for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not raise immediate concerns. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing is an expected finding in the early postoperative period, a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.

4. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

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