ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
- B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
- C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
- D. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.
2. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
- B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
- C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
- D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
- B. Administer oxygen as needed.
- C. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing.
- D. Limit the client's fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to teach pursed-lip breathing. This technique helps improve oxygenation and reduce dyspnea by promoting better air exchange in the lungs. Encouraging deep breaths may not be suitable for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping. Administering oxygen is important in COPD, but teaching pursed-lip breathing is a more direct intervention to help the client manage their condition. Limiting fluid intake is not a standard intervention for COPD and may not be relevant to improving respiratory status.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which action should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?
- A. Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall
- B. Apply lubricant and stimulate peristalsis
- C. Apply pressure to the abdomen to assist with removal
- D. Increase fluid intake before the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when digitally evacuating a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and effectively dislodge the impacted stool. Choice B, applying lubricant and stimulating peristalsis, is incorrect as it does not directly address the evacuation of the impacted stool. Choice C, applying pressure to the abdomen, is inappropriate and may cause discomfort or harm to the client. Choice D, increasing fluid intake before the procedure, is not directly related to the immediate evacuation of the fecal impaction.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Heart rate of 82/min
- C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.
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