ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours.
- B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
- C. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
- D. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying sequential compression devices is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours is contraindicated as it can dislodge a blood clot and increase the risk of embolism. Administering prophylactic antibiotics is not indicated for preventing DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest can contribute to venous stasis and increase the risk of developing DVT.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer magnesium sulfate.
- B. Place the client in the left lateral position.
- C. Monitor intake and output.
- D. Provide a low-sodium diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with severe preeclampsia is to monitor intake and output. This is crucial to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and detect any signs of deterioration. Administering magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but it is not the primary intervention related to care planning. Placing the client in the left lateral position is not a specific intervention for managing preeclampsia. Providing a low-sodium diet is not typically recommended for clients with severe preeclampsia as sodium restriction is not a primary treatment modality for this condition.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a wound infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include about home care?
- A. Soak the wound in warm water every day
- B. Use hydrogen peroxide to clean the wound
- C. Apply a cold compress to the wound
- D. Keep the wound covered with a dry dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the wound covered with a dry dressing.' When providing care for a wound infection, it is essential to keep the wound covered with a dry dressing to prevent further contamination and promote healing. Soaking the wound in warm water (choice A) can introduce moisture and increase the risk of infection. Using hydrogen peroxide (choice B) can be too harsh and may slow down the healing process by damaging healthy tissue. Applying a cold compress (choice C) is not typically recommended for wound infections, as it may not provide the necessary environment for healing.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer ibuprofen 400 mg PO
- B. Administer oxycodone 10 mg PO
- C. Reposition the client to the unaffected side
- D. Apply a cold compress to the affected knee
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.
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