which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

2. A nurse is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The guardian asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube is to flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevent clogging. Choice A, checking for residual feeding contents, is not the immediate action to take before administering the feeding. Choice B, administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe, is not the recommended method for administering enteral feedings. Choice D, administering the feeding at room temperature, is important but not the immediate action related to tube maintenance.

4. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice. This option is suitable for a client with chronic pancreatitis as it is a low-fat, high-protein meal. Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like creamer, margarine, and avocados, making options A, B, and D incorrect choices.

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