which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication deep into subcutaneous tissue. This method helps ensure proper absorption of the medication and prevents tissue irritation. Injecting into the deltoid muscle (Choice A) is not recommended for enoxaparin administration. Massaging the injection site (Choice C) can lead to tissue damage and bruising. Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle (Choice D) is not the correct technique for administering enoxaparin.

3. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

4. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A nonstress test measures the fetal heart's response to movement, helping to assess fetal well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the duration of the test can vary, and it is not always precisely 30 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as drinking water is not necessary for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as having a full bladder is not required for this test.

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