Nursing Elites

1. A client sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. What intervention should the nurse implement to meet the client's nutritional needs?

• A. Keep track of calorie intake for food and beverages.
• B. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
• C. Schedule meals at 6-hour intervals.
• D. Provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet for a client with major burns. This type of diet is essential to support healing and recovery. High-protein intake is crucial as it helps in tissue repair and wound healing, while high-calorie intake is necessary to meet the increased metabolic demands of the body during the healing process. Keeping track of calorie intake (Choice A) is important but doesn't address the specific needs of a burn patient. Providing a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet (Choice B) is not suitable for burn patients as they require adequate protein for wound healing. Scheduling meals at 6-hour intervals (Choice C) may be helpful for maintaining a consistent eating schedule, but it is not as crucial as providing the correct high-protein, high-calorie diet.

2. When discussing clients designating a health care proxy in situations requiring a durable power of attorney for health care (DPAHC), what information should the charge nurse include?

• A. The proxy should make health care decisions for the client regardless of the client's ability to do so.
• B. The proxy can make financial decisions if the need arises.
• C. The proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia.
• D. The proxy should manage legal issues for the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The charge nurse should include information that the proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia. This is a key function of a durable power of attorney for health care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a health care proxy's role is specifically related to making health care decisions, not financial decisions, legal issues, or decisions made under anesthesia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Lochia that is red and contains small clots.
• B. Fundus firm at the umbilicus.
• C. Fundus deviated to the right.
• D. Moderate perineal pain with swelling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundus that is deviated to the right may indicate a full bladder, which should be addressed postpartum. Choice A is incorrect because red lochia with small clots is expected during the early postpartum period. Choice B is incorrect as the fundus should be firm and midline, not at the umbilicus. Choice D is incorrect as perineal pain and swelling are common postpartum findings that do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection prevention. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I can visit someone with chickenpox 5 days after the sores crust.
• B. I should avoid cleaning my cat's litter box during pregnancy.
• C. I should wash my hands with hot water for 10 seconds after gardening.
• D. I can take antibiotics for viral infections.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding cleaning the cat's litter box during pregnancy reduces the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is incorrect because visiting someone with chickenpox should be avoided as it is highly contagious. Choice C is incorrect as handwashing after gardening should involve soap and water, not just hot water, for effective infection prevention. Choice D is incorrect because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
• B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
• C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
• D. Mild headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

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