a nurse is caring for a client who sustained a major burn over 20 of the body what intervention should the nurse implement to meet the clients nutriti
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. What intervention should the nurse implement to meet the client's nutritional needs?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet for a client with major burns. This type of diet is essential to support healing and recovery. High-protein intake is crucial as it helps in tissue repair and wound healing, while high-calorie intake is necessary to meet the increased metabolic demands of the body during the healing process. Keeping track of calorie intake (Choice A) is important but doesn't address the specific needs of a burn patient. Providing a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet (Choice B) is not suitable for burn patients as they require adequate protein for wound healing. Scheduling meals at 6-hour intervals (Choice C) may be helpful for maintaining a consistent eating schedule, but it is not as crucial as providing the correct high-protein, high-calorie diet.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, which can lead to various metabolic disturbances. One of the common findings is an increased serum potassium level. The other options are incorrect because Cushing's disease typically causes hyperglycemia, not decreased serum glucose levels (A), lymphocytopenia, not increased lymphocyte count (B), and hyponatremia, not decreased serum sodium level (D).

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator. Which of the following statements demonstrates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Wearing loose clothing around the ICD is essential to avoid putting pressure on the device, which can interfere with its function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Soaking in a tub rather than showering is not relevant to ICD care. Stopping the use of a microwave oven is not necessary with an ICD. Holding a cellphone on the same side as the ICD is not recommended as it can potentially interfere with the device.

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