Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Stretch the skin at the injection site.
• C. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• D. Aspirate for blood return before injecting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Aspirating for blood return before injecting is a crucial step in administering intramuscular injections. This action ensures that the needle is not in a blood vessel, reducing the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel, which can lead to potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a longer 1-inch needle is often necessary for intramuscular injections to reach the muscle tissue properly. Stretching the skin is not recommended as it can cause unnecessary pain and tissue damage. Inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is the preferred method for intramuscular injections to ensure proper medication delivery.

2. A client has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a fecal collection system
• B. Apply a barrier cream
• C. Cleanse and dry the area
• D. Check the client's perineum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with major fecal incontinence reports irritation in the perianal area, the nurse's initial action should be to assess the client's perineum to gather more information. By checking the perineum, the nurse can identify the extent and nature of the irritation, allowing for appropriate interventions to be initiated. This assessment is crucial in developing a comprehensive care plan and addressing the client's immediate needs effectively. Applying the nursing process priority-setting framework helps in planning care and prioritizing nursing actions, making assessment the initial step in this scenario. Applying a fecal collection system (choice A) would be premature without assessing the perineal area first. Similarly, applying a barrier cream (choice B) or cleansing and drying the area (choice C) should follow the assessment to ensure appropriate interventions are chosen based on the assessment findings.

3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Massage the ulcer
• B. Apply a heating pad
• C. Reposition the client every 2 hours
• D. Use alcohol-based cleansers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is a crucial intervention in the management of pressure ulcers. This action helps redistribute pressure, reducing the risk of further skin breakdown and promoting wound healing. Massaging the ulcer can cause further damage to the skin and underlying tissues. Applying a heating pad can increase the risk of skin breakdown and should be avoided. Alcohol-based cleansers are too harsh for pressure ulcers and can irritate the skin, potentially delaying healing.

4. A client with a new prescription for a dry-powder inhaler (DPI) is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will shake the inhaler before use.
• B. I will take the medication with food.
• C. I will inhale the medication quickly.
• D. I will use a spacer with the inhaler.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choosing option C, 'I will inhale the medication quickly,' demonstrates an understanding of DPI use. Inhaling the medication quickly ensures effective delivery of the dry powder to the lungs, maximizing its therapeutic effects. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as shaking the DPI, taking it with food, and using a spacer are not recommended practices for DPI administration. Shaking a DPI can cause clumping or uneven dispersion of the medication, taking it with food may not affect its efficacy but can increase the risk of side effects, and using a spacer is not necessary for DPIs which are breath-actuated and do not require coordination with inhalation through a spacer.

5. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

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