Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

• A. To provide health insurance coverage for all Americans.
• B. To ensure the confidentiality of health information.
• C. To reduce the cost of healthcare.
• D. To increase access to healthcare services.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is to ensure the confidentiality and security of health information. HIPAA establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and other personal health information. By safeguarding the privacy of health data, HIPAA aims to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of sensitive patient information, preventing unauthorized access and disclosure. This focus on privacy and security helps build trust between patients and healthcare providers, ensuring that personal health information is handled responsibly and ethically.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
• B. Administer oxygen at 6 L/min via nasal cannula.
• C. Place the client in a supine position.
• D. Restrict fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL/day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is essential for clients with COPD as it aids in improving ventilation and gas exchange. This technique helps keep the airways open longer during exhalation, preventing air trapping and promoting more effective breathing. Administering oxygen, placing the client in a supine position, or restricting fluid intake are not primary interventions for managing COPD and may not address the specific respiratory needs of the client.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of insulin. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

• A. Use a 1-inch needle.
• B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Use a tuberculin syringe.
• D. Aspirate before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering a subcutaneous injection, inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is appropriate. This angle helps ensure proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Using a 1-inch needle is common for subcutaneous injections to reach the subcutaneous fat layer adequately. Tuberculin syringes are typically used for intradermal injections, not subcutaneous injections. Aspirating before injecting is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is primarily used for intramuscular injections to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain vitamin D.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.' Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods is essential for managing osteoporosis because calcium is necessary for bone health and density. Adequate calcium intake can help prevent further bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for osteoporosis management. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin D is counterproductive since vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended as it can contribute to bone loss and negatively impact bone health.

5. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
• C. Collect the first voiding.
• D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.

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