Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain vitamin D.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.' Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods is essential for managing osteoporosis because calcium is necessary for bone health and density. Adequate calcium intake can help prevent further bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for osteoporosis management. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin D is counterproductive since vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended as it can contribute to bone loss and negatively impact bone health.

2. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a high-fiber diet. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. White bread
• B. Canned fruit
• C. Cheese
• D. Brown rice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Brown rice is a whole grain that is high in fiber, making it an excellent choice for a high-fiber diet. Foods like white bread, canned fruit, and cheese are typically low in fiber and would not be the best recommendation for a high-fiber diet. White bread is processed and lacks the fiber content found in whole grains like brown rice. Canned fruit, although containing some fiber, often has added sugars and lower fiber content compared to fresh fruits. Cheese is a dairy product that is generally low in fiber and not a significant source of dietary fiber compared to whole grains.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Monitor weight daily.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Increase salt intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring weight daily is crucial when taking furosemide to detect fluid retention or loss. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt through urine. Changes in weight can indicate fluid shifts, which could be a sign of inadequate response to the medication or worsening condition. Therefore, monitoring weight daily is essential to assess the effectiveness of furosemide therapy and detect any potential issues early on. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics, not furosemide. Taking furosemide with food is not necessary, as it can be taken with or without food. Increasing salt intake is contradictory to the purpose of furosemide, which aims to eliminate excess salt from the body.

4. A client has a new prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain a random blood glucose daily.
• B. Change the IV tubing every 72 hours.
• C. Apply a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours.
• D. Weigh the client weekly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels daily is crucial to manage and detect complications like hyperglycemia, which can occur due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. Regular blood glucose monitoring helps the healthcare team adjust the TPN infusion rate to maintain optimal glucose levels and prevent adverse events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because changing IV tubing every 72 hours, applying a new dressing to the IV site every 24 hours, and weighing the client weekly are not specific actions directly related to monitoring and managing the effects of TPN, particularly in relation to glucose levels.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare provider select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Dorsogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Rectus femoris muscle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The deltoid muscle is a common site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its accessibility and muscle mass. It is located in the upper arm and provides a sufficient area for injection. The deltoid muscle is preferred for administering vaccines and other medications that require IM administration. Choice B, the dorsogluteal muscle, is not recommended for intramuscular injections due to the proximity of major nerves and blood vessels in that area, which can lead to nerve damage or injury. Choice C, the vastus lateralis muscle, is more commonly used for infants and young children, while choice D, the rectus femoris muscle, is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

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