Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the healthcare professional recommend?

• A. Nuts
• B. Bananas
• C. Potatoes
• D. Apples

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuts are an excellent source of protein and are suitable for a high-protein diet. They provide essential nutrients and can help the client meet their increased protein requirements. Bananas, potatoes, and apples are not high-protein foods and are not the best choice when aiming to increase protein intake.

2. A client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain vitamin D.
• D. You should increase your intake of high-sodium foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.' Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods is essential for managing osteoporosis because calcium is necessary for bone health and density. Adequate calcium intake can help prevent further bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing intake of potassium-rich foods is not necessary for osteoporosis management. Avoiding foods that contain vitamin D is counterproductive since vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption. Increasing intake of high-sodium foods is not recommended as it can contribute to bone loss and negatively impact bone health.

3. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Pallor.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Jaundice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pallor is a common finding in clients with anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels. Anemia leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in pale skin and mucous membranes, which is known as pallor. Bradycardia, hypertension, and jaundice are typically not associated with anemia.

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