Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the healthcare professional recommend?

• A. Nuts
• B. Bananas
• C. Potatoes
• D. Apples

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuts are an excellent source of protein and are suitable for a high-protein diet. They provide essential nutrients and can help the client meet their increased protein requirements. Bananas, potatoes, and apples are not high-protein foods and are not the best choice when aiming to increase protein intake.

2. A client with hypertension is being taught about the DASH diet. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of sodium-rich foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of fruits and vegetables.
• D. I should decrease my intake of whole grains.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet is recommended for managing hypertension. Increasing the intake of fruits and vegetables is a key component of the DASH diet as these foods are rich in nutrients that can help lower blood pressure levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they go against the principles of the DASH diet, which focuses on reducing sodium intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and consuming whole grains.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Monitor weight daily.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Increase salt intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring weight daily is crucial when taking furosemide to detect fluid retention or loss. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt through urine. Changes in weight can indicate fluid shifts, which could be a sign of inadequate response to the medication or worsening condition. Therefore, monitoring weight daily is essential to assess the effectiveness of furosemide therapy and detect any potential issues early on. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics, not furosemide. Taking furosemide with food is not necessary, as it can be taken with or without food. Increasing salt intake is contradictory to the purpose of furosemide, which aims to eliminate excess salt from the body.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
• B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
• D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.

5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a heating pad to the area.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• D. Reposition the client every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers from worsening. This action helps relieve pressure on specific areas, improving circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Massaging the reddened area can further damage the skin, applying heat can increase the risk of skin breakdown, and elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees may not directly address the pressure ulcer prevention. Proper positioning is essential to avoid prolonged pressure on the affected areas and promote healing.

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