Nursing Elites

1. A client with dysphagia and at risk for aspiration needs care planning. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to drink thickened liquids.
• B. Instruct the client to swallow with chin tucked.
• C. Provide the client with a cup with a lid.
• D. Place the client in Fowler's position for meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client in Fowler's position is crucial in preventing aspiration as it helps maintain an open airway and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the lungs during swallowing. This position promotes safer swallowing and minimizes the chances of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are less effective interventions for preventing aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink thickened liquids may help, but the position is more critical. Instructing the client to swallow with chin tucked is beneficial for some individuals but not as effective as positioning. Providing a cup with a lid does not directly address the risk of aspiration associated with dysphagia.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension and is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will increase my intake of dairy products.
• B. I will eat more fresh fruits and vegetables.
• C. I will limit my intake of whole grains.
• D. I will consume more red meat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because increasing the intake of fresh fruits and vegetables can help manage blood pressure. These foods are rich in nutrients like potassium, fiber, and antioxidants, which are beneficial for individuals with hypertension. Dairy products are usually high in saturated fats, which can be detrimental to blood pressure control. Whole grains are generally recommended for their health benefits, including maintaining a healthy weight and heart health. Red meat is often high in saturated fats and can contribute to high blood pressure and other cardiovascular risks.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Pallor.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Jaundice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pallor is a common finding in clients with anemia due to decreased hemoglobin levels. Anemia leads to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, resulting in pale skin and mucous membranes, which is known as pallor. Bradycardia, hypertension, and jaundice are typically not associated with anemia.

4. A healthcare provider is planning to administer medications to a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water.
• B. Administer medications through a secondary infusion.
• C. Mix medications with the enteral feeding.
• D. Flush the NG tube with 30 mL of water before and after administering medications.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with water before and after administering medications is essential to prevent clogging of the tube and ensure proper delivery of medication. This practice helps maintain tube patency and decreases the risk of obstruction, which could compromise the client's treatment and nutrition. By flushing the tube, the healthcare provider ensures that the medication is completely delivered and that there are no residual drug particles left in the tube, which could lead to blockages or inconsistent dosing. Therefore, flushing the NG tube is a crucial step in the safe administration of medications to clients receiving enteral feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Dissolving medications in sterile water (Choice A) may not be suitable for all drugs, as some medications may require specific diluents. Administering medications through a secondary infusion (Choice B) is not the standard practice for enteral medication administration. Mixing medications with the enteral feeding (Choice C) can cause interactions between medications and the feeding formula, affecting their absorption and effectiveness.

5. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
• B. Flaccid neck muscles.
• C. Petechial rash.
• D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.

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