ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Monitor oxygen saturation
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen
- D. Start IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve airflow. Bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial in providing immediate relief to the patient. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but administering bronchodilators takes precedence in managing the acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction with bronchodilators is the priority. Starting IV fluids (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack unless specifically indicated for other reasons such as dehydration.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Lochia that is red and contains small clots.
- B. Fundus firm at the umbilicus.
- C. Fundus deviated to the right.
- D. Moderate perineal pain with swelling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundus that is deviated to the right may indicate a full bladder, which should be addressed postpartum. Choice A is incorrect because red lochia with small clots is expected during the early postpartum period. Choice B is incorrect as the fundus should be firm and midline, not at the umbilicus. Choice D is incorrect as perineal pain and swelling are common postpartum findings that do not require immediate reporting to the provider.
3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?
- A. Provide education on the importance of medication
- B. Refer the patient to a specialist
- C. Discontinue the medication
- D. Explore alternative treatment options
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Providing education on the importance of medication is crucial in managing hypertension in patients who are non-compliant. By educating the patient about the significance of taking medication as prescribed, the healthcare professional can help improve the patient's understanding and motivation to adhere to the treatment plan. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Discontinuing the medication (Choice C) without addressing the root cause of non-compliance can worsen the patient's condition. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) should come after ensuring the patient understands the importance of the current treatment regimen.
4. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
- D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.
5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
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