Nursing Elites

1. A client has a chest tube. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Maintain the drainage system below the client's chest.
• C. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours.
• D. Keep the collection device at the level of the client's chest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the chest tube drainage system below the client's chest level is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a tension pneumothorax, stripping the chest tube is an outdated practice that can cause damage to the tissues, and keeping the collection device at the level of the client's chest can impede proper drainage and lead to fluid accumulation.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
• B. The client develops hiccups.
• C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
• D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.

4. A client who is 2 hours postoperative following a kidney biopsy is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• B. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• C. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
• D. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range and should be reported following a kidney biopsy to check for bleeding. Decreased hemoglobin levels could indicate internal bleeding, which is a significant concern postoperatively. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is also within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. A respiratory rate of 16/min and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are both normal findings postoperatively.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?

• A. Bradypnea.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.

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