Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Continuous murmur.
• B. Absent peripheral pulses.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A client is receiving discharge instructions following a stroke. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid using aspirin for pain.
• B. I will consume dairy products to increase my calcium intake.
• C. I will drink 1.5 to 2 liters of fluid each day.
• D. I will need to limit my intake of fiber.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Avoiding aspirin is crucial for this client as it can increase the risk of bleeding after a stroke. Choice B about consuming dairy products for calcium intake is not directly related to stroke management. Choice C regarding fluid intake is a good practice for overall health but not specifically related to stroke care. Choice D about limiting fiber intake is not typically a concern after a stroke unless there are specific complications that warrant it.

3. A client is prescribed furosemide and needs to consume potassium-rich foods. Which of the following foods should the client be advised to include in the diet?

• A. Grapes.
• B. Apples.
• C. Bananas.
• D. Rice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are rich in potassium and should be included in the diet of clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Grapes, apples, and rice are not as high in potassium as bananas and would not be as effective in replenishing potassium levels in clients taking furosemide.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Clay-colored stools.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Stridor.
• D. Elevated temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clay-colored stools are a classic finding in a client with cirrhosis. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired bile flow, resulting in pale or clay-colored stools due to a lack of bilirubin in the stool. Hypertension, stridor, and elevated temperature are not typically associated with cirrhosis. Hypertension may occur in cirrhosis but is not a consistent finding, stridor is more commonly associated with upper airway obstruction, and elevated temperature may indicate an infection rather than a direct result of cirrhosis.

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