a nurse is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

2. A client with a new colostomy requires care planning by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the ostomy pouch every 4 to 7 days. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and leakage by maintaining a clean and secure seal around the stoma. Option B is incorrect because it is more important to change the pouch regularly rather than emptying it when half full. Option C is incorrect as applying a skin barrier is typically done during the initial application of the pouch, not during regular changes. Option D is incorrect because alcohol can be too harsh for the peristomal skin and can cause irritation.

3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse preparing to administer a controlled substance is to witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse. This practice is crucial to prevent misuse and ensure accurate documentation. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the controlled substance by oneself without proper witnessing is not in accordance with safety protocols. Choice C is incorrect as leaving a controlled substance unattended in a client's room poses risks of diversion or unauthorized access. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the administration and signing off at the end of the shift is important but does not specifically address the issue of witnessing the waste of a controlled substance, which is a critical step in ensuring proper handling and accountability.

5. A client who is taking phenytoin is being taught about contraceptive options. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Phenytoin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so it is important to inform the client about this interaction. Using an additional form of contraception, such as a backup method, is recommended to ensure adequate protection against pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because it lacks specificity about the decrease in effectiveness of oral contraceptives caused by phenytoin. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests stopping phenytoin use while using oral contraceptives, which is not the appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as phenytoin is known to decrease, not increase, the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

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