a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of myocardial infarction which of the following findings should the nurse report
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of myocardial infarction, a respiratory rate of 16/min should be reported to the provider. Changes in respiratory rate can indicate cardiac or pulmonary issues that need further evaluation. The other vital signs provided (blood pressure, heart rate, and LDL cholesterol level) are within normal limits and do not directly relate to potential complications following a myocardial infarction.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen is an NSAID that can increase the risk of bleeding during a colonoscopy due to its effects on platelet function. It is important to report this finding to the provider to consider alternative pain management options. Choices B, C, and D are not the most pertinent to report for a colonoscopy. Asthma and a history of diverticulitis are relevant medical history but do not directly impact the colonoscopy procedure. Drinking one glass of wine daily is not a concern specifically related to the colonoscopy procedure.

3. While caring for a client with an arterial line, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining arterial blood gases is a crucial nursing action when caring for a client with an arterial line. This procedure helps assess the client's oxygenation status and acid-base balance accurately. Leveling the transducer with the client's phlebotomy site (A) is important for accurate pressure measurements, but it is not the primary action in this scenario. Flushing the arterial line every 8 hours (B) is a routine maintenance procedure and not the immediate priority. Keeping the client's hand elevated above the heart level (D) is a good practice to prevent swelling, but it is not directly related to the arterial line care in this case.

4. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.

5. What is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient receiving digoxin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient receiving digoxin because it can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) and Hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not directly related to digoxin therapy and do not pose the same risk of toxicity.

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